Religion and Ethics Forum
Religion and Ethics Discussion => Christian Topic => Topic started by: Spud on October 04, 2025, 12:46:59 PM
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From the same series as in the link in the OP of the thread on Isaiah 7:14:
Isaiah 53 - is it Israel or the Messiah? (https://youtu.be/9kq4sCWOMcw?si=rvuncFXmFgv2vWIV)
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From the same series as in the link in the OP of the thread on Isaiah 7:14:
Isaiah 53 - is it Israel or the Messiah? (https://youtu.be/9kq4sCWOMcw?si=rvuncFXmFgv2vWIV)
The first thing to be considered is "is the text translated correctly in the Christian versions?" Or has it been skewed deliberately to reflect a Christian theology? In particular, verses 4 and 5 immediately introduce the idea of Christ's suffering and death being an atonement for us. How much can depend on a preposition! (Remember the Western and Eastern Church split up in great part because of a Latin conjunctive participle; but that's another matter :) )
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The first thing to be considered is "is the text translated correctly in the Christian versions?" Or has it been skewed deliberately to reflect a Christian theology? In particular, verses 4 and 5 immediately introduce the idea of Christ's suffering and death being an atonement for us. How much can depend on a preposition! (Remember the Western and Eastern Church split up in great part because of a Latin conjunctive participle; but that's another matter :) )
Thanks for this. I've checked on biblehub.com, and found that the preposition in verse 5 which is translated 'for' in our Bibles, literally means 'from'.
Thus: "he was wounded from our transgressions, and bruised from our iniquities. The chastisement for our peace was 'upon' (according to Bible hub) him, and in his stripes we are healed."
So essentially the same meaning as in our Bibles?