The first thing to be considered is "is the text translated correctly in the Christian versions?" Or has it been skewed deliberately to reflect a Christian theology? In particular, verses 4 and 5 immediately introduce the idea of Christ's suffering and death being an atonement for us. How much can depend on a preposition! (Remember the Western and Eastern Church split up in great part because of a Latin conjunctive participle; but that's another matter 
)
Thanks for this. I've checked on biblehub.com, and found that the preposition in verse 5 which is translated 'for' in our Bibles, literally means 'from'.
Thus: "he was wounded
from our transgressions, and bruised
from our iniquities. The chastisement for our peace was '
upon' (according to Bible hub) him, and
in his stripes we are healed."
So essentially the same meaning as in our Bibles?
